116942
Let \(R\) be the set of all real number.
Statement I: The function
\(\mathbf{f}:\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right) \rightarrow \mathbf{R}\) defined by \(f(x)=\sec x+\tan\) \(x\) is a one-one function.
Statement II: The function \(\mathrm{f:}[0, \infty) \rightarrow R\) defined by \(f(x)=x^2\) is a one -one function.
Which of the above statement is (are) true?
116942
Let \(R\) be the set of all real number.
Statement I: The function
\(\mathbf{f}:\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right) \rightarrow \mathbf{R}\) defined by \(f(x)=\sec x+\tan\) \(x\) is a one-one function.
Statement II: The function \(\mathrm{f:}[0, \infty) \rightarrow R\) defined by \(f(x)=x^2\) is a one -one function.
Which of the above statement is (are) true?
116942
Let \(R\) be the set of all real number.
Statement I: The function
\(\mathbf{f}:\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right) \rightarrow \mathbf{R}\) defined by \(f(x)=\sec x+\tan\) \(x\) is a one-one function.
Statement II: The function \(\mathrm{f:}[0, \infty) \rightarrow R\) defined by \(f(x)=x^2\) is a one -one function.
Which of the above statement is (are) true?
116942
Let \(R\) be the set of all real number.
Statement I: The function
\(\mathbf{f}:\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right) \rightarrow \mathbf{R}\) defined by \(f(x)=\sec x+\tan\) \(x\) is a one-one function.
Statement II: The function \(\mathrm{f:}[0, \infty) \rightarrow R\) defined by \(f(x)=x^2\) is a one -one function.
Which of the above statement is (are) true?